wotan
New member
I had a little brain storm last night. Given that many of the victims of the 1918 pandemic were otherwise healthy but died of cytokine storms, is it possible many of these victims had an undiagnosed and newly discovered (in 1918) condition: allergies?
According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Allergy, allergies are an acute immune response. Quoting from the article:
It doesn't state that allergies didn't exist prior to then, but it was not an identified condition before then. It would seem reasonable to conclude that some amount of the population suffered from allergies and that that was their only pre-existing condition. Would it be a stretch then to say that the cytokine storm is the result of an allergic reaction to a pathogen, similar to Anaphylaxis?
According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Allergy, allergies are an acute immune response. Quoting from the article:
The concept of "allergy" was originally introduced in 1906 by the Viennese pediatrician Clemens von Pirquet, after he noted that some of his patients were hypersensitive to normally innocuous entities such as dust, pollen, or certain foods.
It doesn't state that allergies didn't exist prior to then, but it was not an identified condition before then. It would seem reasonable to conclude that some amount of the population suffered from allergies and that that was their only pre-existing condition. Would it be a stretch then to say that the cytokine storm is the result of an allergic reaction to a pathogen, similar to Anaphylaxis?